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Previous Month | RSS/XML | Archives | Current | Next Month January 29th, 2008 (Permalink)Logic Checking the State of the UnionHere's an example taken from the President's State of the Union speech of how the "average"―meaning the mean―can be atypical when applied to income, courtesy of the folks at Annenberg: The president, using an accurate but misleading figure, exaggerated the effect on the typical taxpayer of allowing his tax cuts to expire.Bush: Unless the Congress acts, most of the tax relief we have delivered over the past seven years will be taken away. Some in Washington argue that letting tax relief expire is not a tax increase. Try explaining that to 116 million American taxpayers who would see their taxes rise by an average of $1,800. Source: Brooks Jackson, et al., "Facts of the Union 2008", Annenberg Political Fact Check, 1/29/2008 Resource: "'Average' Ambiguity, 11/4/2002 January 28th, 2008 (Permalink)Logical Literacy: Induction and DeductionLogical literacy is the minimum knowledge of the basic concepts of logic which an educated person should have. Logical illiteracy―or "illogicality", as I call it―is the lack of this minimum knowledge, and a condition that is all too common. You don't need to be a logician to be logically literate, any more than you need to be a linguist to be literate in a natural language, but what do you need to know? I have written previously that a logically literate person should understand the phrase "begs the question", which does not mean "raises the question" but refers to a logical fallacy. Another thing that an educated person should know is the distinction between deductive and inductive reasoning:
These definitions are standard among contemporary logicians, and have been so for at least half a century and probably longer. Nonetheless, it is still common to come across the following definitions:
Logicians have alternative vocabulary for the distinctions made by the older definitions:
What's wrong with the old definitions, and why did logicians adopt the new ones? I'm not sure about the history, but I suspect that logicians of the past may have mistakenly thought that the deductive/inductive distinction was co-extensive with the generalization/specification distinction. For instance, an old-fashioned textbook example of a deductive argument is: All men are mortal. This argument is deductive and it moves from the general to the specific, albeit with the help of a specific second premiss. Similarly, the usual examples of inductive arguments tend to be generalizations, for instance: This swan is white. However, many deductive arguments do not go from the general to the specific. Some go from the general to the general, for instance: All men are people. Some go from the specific to the specific, for example: Socrates is a Greek man. Some even go from the specific to the general; consider the following admittedly artificial example: Socrates is a man. Similarly, not all inductions go from the specific to the general. Some go from the specific to the specific, for example: This swan is white. Some even go from the general to the general, for instance: All swans can fly. The conclusion is, of course, false but that doesn't mean that it's not an induction. The distinction between deduction and induction in their current senses is extremely important because the logical principles governing them are different. In fact, it is one of the most important distinctions in logic, which is why it is a component of logical literacy. Unfortunately, illogicality on this matter is spread and kept alive by many sources. The current Wikipedia articles on inductive and deductive reasoning are particularly horrid examples. In addition to many other mistakes and passages that make no sense, each article defines its subject in the outdated way. The illogicality is increased by the fact that the article on deduction defines it as "the type of reasoning that proceeds from general principles or premises to derive particular information", but then gives the following example: All apples are fruit. This is, indeed, a deductive argument, but not one that goes from general to specific; rather, it deduces a general principle from two other general principles. Similarly, the article on inductive reasoning treats both definitions of "induction" as if they mean the same thing: Induction…is the process of reasoning in which the premises of an argument are believed to support the conclusion but do not ensure it. Induction is a form of reasoning that makes generalizations based on individual instances. Unfortunately, many other sources of information are nearly as bad as Wikipedia. Here are some better ones: Resources:
Reader Response (1/30/2008): Shouldn't your definition of "deduction" be "it must be that, if the premises are true, then the conclusion is true" rather than "if the premises are true, then the conclusion must be true"? (Likewise, mutatis mutandis, for the definition of "induction".) The second phrasing doesn't seem correct to me because it implies that the conclusion is necessarily true, when what's actually a matter of necessity is the relationship between the premises and the conclusion.―Vance Ricks You raise an important point. The scope of the word "must" in "if the premisses are true, then the conclusion must be true" is ambiguous between:
You're right that the wide scope is what I intended. That the scope is ambiguous can be seen by comparing it to the following: If Buchanan is a bachelor, then he must be unmarried. This appears to be a true conditional statement, but it also appears that the scope of "must" is the statement's consequent: "Buchanan is unmarried". However, it certainly isn't true that Buchanan is necessarily unmarried, for he could have married. That being the case, it would follow by Modus Tollens that Buchanan isn't a bachelor! So, the scope of "must" is the entire statement, rather than just the consequent. It's not so obvious that the scope of the "must" in the definition of "deduction" I gave is wide, since in some cases the conclusion of a deductive argument may indeed by necessarily true. However, there are many deductions whose conclusions are contingent. So, why did I phrase the definition the way I did? Because it's awkward to write the definition with unambiguously wide scope, I opted for a graceful sentence at the risk of possible misunderstanding. Thanks to your raising the issue, it should now be clear that the modalities in both definitions have wide scope. January 18th, 2008 (Permalink)Check 'Em Out, Too
January 17th, 2008 (Permalink)Silly Celebrity ScientologistHere's Tom Cruise speaking to his fellow scientologists: Being a Scientologist, when you drive past an accident, it's not like anyone else, it's, you drive past, you know you have to do something about it. You know you are the only one who can really help. … We are the authorities on getting people off drugs. We are the authorities on the mind. We are the authorities on improving conditions. … We can rehabilitate criminals. We can bring peace and unite cultures. Here's just one example of Cruise's expertise on drugs: Look at the experimentation the Nazis did with electric shock and drugging. Look at the drug methadone. That was originally called Adolophine. It was named after Adolf Hitler… Methadone was never named "Adolophine". Rather, it was named "Dolophine", from the Latin word "dolor" for "pain" and "phine" from "morphine", since methadone is similar to morphine. Even if methadone had been named after Adolf Hitler, that wouldn't mean that it's a useless drug. Cruise was trying to discredit it by playing the Hitler card in its guilt by association form. Sources:
January 14th, 2008 (Permalink)Reader ResponseShmuel Ruppo sends the following comments: If someone says during a debate "Atheists are evil people", many would classify this as an "ad hominem". But when you look at the sentence, it doesn't say "Atheists are evil people, and therefore there is no god". If that implies something, it is not the former, but "Atheists are evil people, therefore one should not be an atheist". There is no logical fallacy in that at all; given that one should not be an evil person, that is completely valid. By definition, to be an atheist is to believe something or, more accurately, not believe something, namely, that there is a god. So, to conclude an argument "you shouldn't be an atheist" is equivalent to concluding that you should believe in a god. However, the only reason given by the argument for believing in a god is a moral one, namely, that atheists are supposedly evil people. This is irrelevant to the ontological question of whether there is a god, just as whether children who don't believe in Santa Claus are worse behaved than those who do is irrelevant to whether there is a Santa. So, the fallacy committed is not ad hominem, but a fallacious appeal to consequences. Nonetheless, the argument that "all atheists are evil, therefore one should not be an atheist" seems to pack some moral force. Let's call someone who doesn't believe in Santa Claus an "aclausist". Then, consider the argument "all aclausists are evil, therefore one should not be an aclausist", in other words, you should believe in Santa. Isn't there something wrong with this argument? Supposing that it is true that people who don't believe in St. Nick are generally less kind and generous than those who do, is this really a good argument for believing in him? Can one be morally obliged to believe something false? What is the basis for the claim that all atheists are bad people? Isn't it that they are bad because they don't believe in a god? But what's wrong with not believing in a god? Isn't it generally better to believe truths than falsehoods? So, if there is no god, isn't it better not to believe in one? The premiss that atheists are evil smuggles in the existence of a god through the back door, that is, it is wrong to be an atheist if and only if there actually is a god. Thus, the argument is really: "There is a god, so all atheists are bad people, hence you should not be an atheist, therefore you should believe in a god." Eliminating the middle men, we get: "There is a god, therefore you should believe in a god." This is a perfectly fine argument, and so is: "there is a Santa Claus, therefore you should believe in Santa." If the premiss is true then, yes, you should believe in Santa. But that's no evidence for the existence of Santa Claus, nor that you should believe in him. Update (1/15/2008): Coincidentally, mathematician John Allen Paulos' latest book is Irreligion: A Mathematician Explains Why the Arguments for God Just Don't Add Up. I wish someone would send me a review copy. All of the traditional philosophical arguments for the existence of a god are fallacious, though some are complex and subtle enough that it is difficult to figure out exactly what's wrong with them. I've previously posted puzzles based on a couple of these arguments:
Source: John Allen Paulos, "God, Science and an Unbeliever's Utopia", Who's Counting, 1/6/2008 January 13th, 2008 (Permalink)HeadlineMissing girl police appeal to manThere's no accounting for taste. January 8th, 2008 (Permalink)A Debate PuzzleFive politicians participated in a debate for the Republicrat Party's nomination for President. Each politician made exactly three statements that were clear and specific enough to be checked. An independent fact checking organization determined that each candidate made exactly two true statements and one falsehood. Here are those statements:
Who voted to raise taxes? January 6th, 2008 (Permalink)Check 'Em Out
January 3rd, 2008 (Permalink)Poll WatchHere's Bonnie Erbe on the polls out of Iowa: So much for belief in polls: Just two days before tomorrow's caucuses, two major political polls taken in Iowa were released showing very different results for the two Democratic front-runners. … The first poll, by CNN, revealed the following results: "Among Democrats, Sen. Hillary Clinton of New York wins the most support, with 33 percent of likely Democratic caucus-goers backing Clinton and 31 percent supporting Sen. Barack Obama of Illinois. But taking into account the survey's sampling error of 4.5 percentage points in the Democratic race, the race is virtually tied." Much to CNN's credit, the difference in this poll is duly noted as being within the statistic[al] margin of error. But then compare those results with this poll and the much larger gap, which beat the margin of error in the opposite direction: "A new poll by the Des Moines Register newspaper shows Democratic presidential hopeful Senator Barack Obama ahead of Senator Hillary Clinton in Thursday's Iowa caucuses. The poll indicates Obama is supported by 32 percent of likely Democratic caucus-goers, while Clinton has 25 percent support and former North Carolina Senator John Edwards 24 percent. The newspaper says its telephone survey involved 800 likely Democratic caucus-goers, with a sampling error of plus or minus 3.5 percentage points." One danger with misunderstanding the margin of error (MoE) of polls is that people take seriously poll results that are insignificant, but another is that they will become cynical and reject all poll results when they seem to conflict with the results of an election, or with each other. The two polls that Erbe thinks conflict really don't when you take the MoE into consideration. Erbe points out the insignificance of Clinton's lead in the CNN poll, but fails to realize that Obama's lead in the Register poll is also within the MoE, because the MoE applies to both candidates' results. So, with a MoE of 3.5 percentage points, a lead needs to be over 7 points to be significant. Obama's lead in the Register poll is 7 points and, therefore, not significant. However, it's on the borderline of significance and may well represent a real lead. So, what should the polls lead us to expect tonight? (I'm writing this before the Iowa caucus results are in.) The poll results have been quite consistent when you take the MoE into consideration: they show that for both parties, the candidates can be divided up into two groups, let's call them "the contenders" and "the also rans". On the Democratic side, the contenders are Clinton, Obama, and Edwards; and the also-rans are everyone else. In most polls, the contenders are within the MoE of each other, but the also-rans are significantly far behind. In some polls Clinton leads, in others Obama, and Edwards in one, but seldom if ever significantly. So, the polls show that any of the contenders could win, but what would be surprising is if any of the also-rans did so. That should really call the polls into question and make us wonder what went wrong. Sources:
Resource: How to Read a Poll, Fallacy Watch Update (1/4/2008): It appears that the contenders won: for the Democrats, Obama beat out Clinton and Edwards, who are virtually tied for second. Huckabee and Romney were the contenders for the Republicans, and Huckabee seems to have triumphed. So, the results are consistent with what the polls showed, if not with much of the reporting of the polls. Source: James Rowley & Catherine Dodge, "Obama and Huckabee Are Winners in Iowa Caucuses (Update2)", Bloomberg, 1/3/2008 Solution to A Debate Puzzle: Governor Boyce Previous Month | Weblog Archives | Current Weblog | Next Month |